What is a Bernoulli trial? One trial, two outcomes

By Jude Wallis · Published

A Bernoulli trial is one random trial with exactly two outcomes, success and failure, and a success probability pp that does not change. Count the successes across nn independent Bernoulli trials that share the same pp and that count is a binomial random variable.

AP Statistics: Unit 2 (topics 2.8 Introduction to Random Variables and Probability Distributions, 2.10 The Binomial Distribution). A Bernoulli trial is the single-trial case of Unit 2 topic 2.8 and the building block of topic 2.10 in the Fall 2026 AP Statistics course. Unit 2 is 15% to 25% of the multiple-choice section, and the binomial mean and standard deviation are on the formula sheet.

A Bernoulli trial in one sentence

A Bernoulli trial is a single random action that can come out only two ways. Three things have to be true.

  1. Exactly two outcomes. You label one of them success and the other failure. The labels are bookkeeping, not judgment: "the part is defective" can be the success if that is what you are counting.
  2. A fixed success probability pp. Here pp is the probability of success on this trial. The failure probability is 1p1 - p, often written qq.
  3. One trial. A Bernoulli trial is the atom. Repeating it is what builds the distributions you actually use.

One free throw, one coin flip, one surveyed voter answering yes or no, one manufactured part that passes or fails inspection: each is a Bernoulli trial. A question with three or more outcomes is not one, though you can force it into shape by collapsing the categories, for example treating "red" as success and "any other color" as failure.

No topic in the Fall 2026 AP Statistics course is titled after the Bernoulli trial. The setting arrives inside Unit 2 topic 2.10, The Binomial Distribution, so learn the three conditions rather than the label. The name is worth knowing anyway, because college courses and textbooks use it constantly.

The mean and standard deviation of one trial

Write the trial as a random variable XX that takes the value 1 for success and 0 for failure. That 0 or 1 coding is what makes the algebra work, because counting successes then becomes plain addition.

The mean of a discrete random variable is μX=xiP(xi)\mu_X = \sum x_i P(x_i), so

μX=0(1p)+1(p)=p\mu_X = 0(1-p) + 1(p) = p

The mean of a single Bernoulli trial is the success probability itself. The variance follows from σX2=(xiμX)2P(xi)\sigma_X^2 = \sum (x_i - \mu_X)^2 P(x_i):

σX2=(0p)2(1p)+(1p)2p=p(1p)\sigma_X^2 = (0-p)^2(1-p) + (1-p)^2 p = p(1-p)

so the standard deviation is σX=p(1p)\sigma_X = \sqrt{p(1-p)}. With p=0.7p = 0.7 the mean is 0.7, the variance is 0.7×0.3=0.210.7 \times 0.3 = 0.21, and the standard deviation is 0.210.4583\sqrt{0.21} \approx 0.4583.

Notice where p(1p)p(1-p) peaks. It is largest at p=0.5p = 0.5, where it equals 0.25, and it shrinks toward 0 as pp approaches either end. A trial you can barely predict is the most variable one, and that same p(1p)p(1-p) shows up later inside every standard error for a proportion.

Stacking trials: how the binomial is built

Run nn independent Bernoulli trials that all share the same pp, and let XiX_i be the 0 or 1 result of trial ii. Define

X=X1+X2++XnX = X_1 + X_2 + \cdots + X_n

Each XiX_i contributes 1 when that trial succeeds and 0 when it fails, so the sum is literally the number of successes. That count is a binomial random variable, written XB(n,p)X \sim B(n, p). The binomial distribution is not a separate idea from the Bernoulli trial; it is the answer to "how many of these trials succeeded".

The formula falls out of the same picture. Any one specific sequence with kk successes and nkn-k failures has probability pk(1p)nkp^k(1-p)^{n-k}, because independent trials multiply. Then you count how many sequences have kk successes, which is the binomial coefficient (nk)\binom{n}{k}:

P(X=k)=(nk)pk(1p)nkP(X = k) = \binom{n}{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k}

Make that concrete with n=5n = 5 and p=0.7p = 0.7. There are 25=322^5 = 32 possible success-failure sequences. Exactly 10 of them contain 3 successes, and each of those 10 has probability 0.73×0.32=0.343×0.09=0.030870.7^3 \times 0.3^2 = 0.343 \times 0.09 = 0.03087. So P(X=3)=10×0.03087=0.3087P(X = 3) = 10 \times 0.03087 = 0.3087, which is what (53)p3(1p)2\binom{5}{3}p^3(1-p)^2 returns and what the binomial probability calculator returns.

Where np and the binomial standard deviation come from

Because a binomial count is a sum of nn Bernoulli trials, its mean and standard deviation are the single-trial values scaled up.

Means always add, whether or not the pieces are independent. Each trial contributes a mean of pp, so

μX=np\mu_X = np

Variances add too, but only when the pieces are independent, which is exactly why independence is one of the binomial conditions. Each trial contributes a variance of p(1p)p(1-p), so the total variance is np(1p)np(1-p) and

σX=np(1p)\sigma_X = \sqrt{np(1-p)}

Check it on the n=5n = 5, p=0.7p = 0.7 example. The mean is 5×0.7=3.55 \times 0.7 = 3.5 successes, and adding the five single-trial variances gives 5×0.21=1.055 \times 0.21 = 1.05, so σX=1.051.0247\sigma_X = \sqrt{1.05} \approx 1.0247. Computing the mean and standard deviation straight from the six probabilities of the distribution returns the same 3.5 and 1.0247.

The standard deviation formula takes a square root, so standard deviations do not add. Five trials do not have five times the standard deviation of one; they have 5\sqrt{5} times it. That square-root growth is the same behavior you see in sampling distributions.

What breaks a Bernoulli trial

Three failures come up repeatedly, and each one has a fix or a workaround.

More than two outcomes. Rolling a die has six. Collapse the categories to rescue it: "rolls a 6" versus "does not roll a 6" is a Bernoulli trial with p=16p = \frac{1}{6}.

A changing pp. A basketball player who tires over 40 attempts does not have one fixed pp. Neither does a survey that switches question wording partway through. If pp moves, the trials are not identical and the binomial formula does not apply.

Dependence. Sampling without replacement is the classic case. Drawing 4 cards from a standard deck and counting hearts is not binomial, because after a heart leaves the deck the next draw has a different probability. The exact chance of exactly 1 heart in 4 cards is 0.4388, while treating it as binomial with p=0.25p = 0.25 gives 0.4219, an error of about 0.017. Here the sample is 4527.7%\frac{4}{52} \approx 7.7\% of the deck, which clears the usual 10% guideline.

That 10% condition is the standard rescue: when you sample less than 10% of the population without replacement, the drift in pp from draw to draw is small enough to work with. Close enough is not exact, though, and the cards show the size of what you are accepting. Clearing the guideline at 7.7% of a 52-card deck still leaves the binomial answer 0.017 away from the truth, because the condition bounds the drift rather than removing it. The full checklist is in how to tell if a situation is binomial.

Bernoulli, binomial, and geometric

Three distributions grow out of the same trial, and they differ only in what you count.

Random variableWhat it countsSetting
Bernoulli1 for success, 0 for failureone trial
Binomialnumber of successesnn trials fixed in advance
Geometricnumber of trials up to and including the first successkeep going until the first success

The distinguishing question is what is fixed. In a binomial setting the number of trials is fixed and the number of successes varies. In a geometric setting the number of successes is fixed at one and the number of trials varies. With p=0.7p = 0.7, the geometric probability that the first success arrives on trial 3 is 0.3×0.3×0.7=0.0630.3 \times 0.3 \times 0.7 = 0.063: two failures, then a success.

One scope note. College Board removed the geometric distribution from the AP exam with the Fall 2026 course, along with several other topics, as listed on the College Board AP Statistics future revisions page. The binomial distribution stayed, as topic 2.10. The geometric distribution is still standard content in a college introductory course, and binomial vs geometric covers the comparison.

One more descendant matters for inference: when nn is large enough, a binomial count is close to a normal curve, which is the whole content of the normal approximation to the binomial.

One trial: mean and standard deviation

A machine produces parts, and 70% of them pass inspection. One part is selected at random. Define a Bernoulli trial for this situation and find its mean and standard deviation.

  1. Define success. Let success be "the part passes", so p=0.7p = 0.7 and the failure probability is 1p=0.31 - p = 0.3.

  2. Check the conditions. There are exactly two outcomes (pass or fail), pp is fixed at 0.7, and this is a single trial. It is a Bernoulli trial.

  3. Code the outcomes. Let X=1X = 1 if the part passes and X=0X = 0 if it does not, so P(X=1)=0.7P(X=1) = 0.7 and P(X=0)=0.3P(X=0) = 0.3.

  4. Mean: μX=0(0.3)+1(0.7)=0.7\mu_X = 0(0.3) + 1(0.7) = 0.7.

  5. Variance: σX2=(00.7)2(0.3)+(10.7)2(0.7)=0.49(0.3)+0.09(0.7)=0.147+0.063=0.21\sigma_X^2 = (0 - 0.7)^2(0.3) + (1 - 0.7)^2(0.7) = 0.49(0.3) + 0.09(0.7) = 0.147 + 0.063 = 0.21.

  6. Confirm against the shortcut p(1p)=0.7×0.3=0.21p(1-p) = 0.7 \times 0.3 = 0.21. It matches.

  7. Standard deviation: σX=0.210.4583\sigma_X = \sqrt{0.21} \approx 0.4583.

XX is a Bernoulli trial with p=0.7p = 0.7. Its mean is μX=0.7\mu_X = 0.7 and its standard deviation is σX=0.210.4583\sigma_X = \sqrt{0.21} \approx 0.4583. The mean of a single trial is just the success probability, because the only nonzero value is 1.

Five trials: the binomial as a count of Bernoulli successes

Five parts are selected independently from the same process, where each has probability 0.7 of passing. Let XX be the number that pass. Show that XX is binomial, find P(X=3)P(X = 3) from first principles, find P(X4)P(X \ge 4), and find the mean and standard deviation.

  1. Each part is a Bernoulli trial with p=0.7p = 0.7. There are n=5n = 5 of them, they are independent, and pp is the same each time, so X=X1+X2+X3+X4+X5X = X_1 + X_2 + X_3 + X_4 + X_5 is a binomial count: XB(5,0.7)X \sim B(5, 0.7).

  2. Count the sequences. Each of the 5 trials has 2 possible results, so there are 25=322^5 = 32 sequences in all, and (53)=10\binom{5}{3} = 10 of them contain exactly 3 passes.

  3. Find the probability of one such sequence. Independence lets you multiply: 0.73×0.32=0.343×0.09=0.030870.7^3 \times 0.3^2 = 0.343 \times 0.09 = 0.03087.

  4. Multiply by the number of sequences: P(X=3)=10×0.03087=0.3087P(X = 3) = 10 \times 0.03087 = 0.3087.

  5. For P(X4)P(X \ge 4), add the two remaining cases. P(X=4)=(54)(0.7)4(0.3)=5×0.2401×0.3=0.36015P(X = 4) = \binom{5}{4}(0.7)^4(0.3) = 5 \times 0.2401 \times 0.3 = 0.36015, and P(X=5)=0.75=0.16807P(X = 5) = 0.7^5 = 0.16807.

  6. P(X4)=0.36015+0.16807=0.528220.5282P(X \ge 4) = 0.36015 + 0.16807 = 0.52822 \approx 0.5282. On a calculator this is 1binomcdf(5,0.7,3)1 - \text{binomcdf}(5, 0.7, 3), which returns the same 0.5282.

  7. Mean: μX=np=5(0.7)=3.5\mu_X = np = 5(0.7) = 3.5 parts, which is also the five single-trial means of 0.7 added up.

  8. Standard deviation: σX=np(1p)=5(0.7)(0.3)=1.051.0247\sigma_X = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{5(0.7)(0.3)} = \sqrt{1.05} \approx 1.0247 parts, which is the square root of the five single-trial variances of 0.21 added up.

XB(5,0.7)X \sim B(5, 0.7). P(X=3)=0.3087P(X = 3) = 0.3087, P(X4)=0.5282P(X \ge 4) = 0.5282, μX=3.5\mu_X = 3.5 parts and σX1.0247\sigma_X \approx 1.0247 parts. Every one of those numbers traces back to a single Bernoulli trial with p=0.7p = 0.7, mean 0.7, and variance 0.21.

Frequently asked questions

What is the difference between a Bernoulli trial and a binomial distribution?

A Bernoulli trial is one trial with two outcomes. A binomial random variable is the count of successes across nn independent Bernoulli trials that share the same pp. One trial is the building block; the binomial is what you get when you stack nn of them and count.

What are the mean and standard deviation of a Bernoulli trial?

Coding success as 1 and failure as 0, the mean is μ=p\mu = p and the standard deviation is σ=p(1p)\sigma = \sqrt{p(1-p)}. For p=0.7p = 0.7 that is a mean of 0.7 and a standard deviation of 0.210.4583\sqrt{0.21} \approx 0.4583. Multiply by nn and by n\sqrt{n} respectively to get the binomial values npnp and np(1p)\sqrt{np(1-p)}.

Does the AP Statistics exam use the term Bernoulli trial?

The topic titles of the Fall 2026 course do not use the name. Topic 2.10, The Binomial Distribution, is where the same setting shows up, so learn the three conditions rather than the vocabulary. Knowing the name still helps, because textbooks and college courses use it constantly.

Is sampling without replacement a set of Bernoulli trials?

Strictly, no, because the success probability changes after each draw and the trials are not independent. It is treated as one when the sample is less than 10% of the population, since the drift in pp is then small. Clearing that guideline does not make the two agree, though. Drawing 4 cards from a 52-card deck is 7.7% of the population and still shows a gap: the exact probability of exactly 1 heart is 0.4388 against a binomial 0.4219.

Can a Bernoulli trial have an outcome that is not success or failure?

No, it has exactly two. When the underlying situation has more, define success as one category and failure as everything else. Rolling a die is not a Bernoulli trial, but "rolls a 6" versus "does not roll a 6" is one, with p=16p = \frac{1}{6}.